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I was a virgin when I got married , andhave been diagnosed with cervical dysplasia. I know my husband has a history of plantar warts, which are apparently caused by hpv. could the hpv that caused his warts have been transmitted to me and turned up as c. dysplasia? Or are there two types of hpv working here that are not connected. Pre marriage I had a history of once yearly negative paps?




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